[Seekers] Punishment
Michael W. Fisher mwfisher@cts.com
Sun, 01 Mar 1998 14:42:25 -0800 (00888813745, 34F9E451.CADF0D6B@cts.com)
Steven Carr wrote:
> In message <34F9B575.30C62043@ksinc.net>, Ward Fenley
> <kingdom@ksinc.net> writes
>
> >Ok, without the Bible, prove to me that anyone's definition of "right"
> >and "wrong" is absolute.
> >
> >Linda, if I walk over and kill Chuck in cold blood, try to prove to me
> >without the Bible that it's wrong. You can't, cause without the Bible
> >you have no absolutes.
>
> The Bible does indeed tell us what murder is, and what manslaughter is.
> The reference is Numbers 35:16-32
>
Is a killing in self defense murder? Is a killing in defense of another
murder?
When the patriarhes of the OT wrote "man" that is generally precisely
what it meant -- men. The prohibitions agains murder are agains men
stricking other men and killing them with blows. Is it or is it not muder
then to kill a woman? A child? Can a woman commit murder? Is it murder to
drown or strangle or poison someone? Where does the Bible say so, one way
or the other? How would any of those be reconciled with Num 35:24?
Ciao.
--
Michael Fisher, ET1/SS USN ret., law student
>>NEW->http://www.infidels.org/library/humor/lioaca.html
http://www.infidels.org/news/atheism/logic.html
http://home.aol.com/Mfish6994
* * *
". . . a very LONG discussion is one of the most
effective veils of Fallacy: . . . A Fallacy which
when stated barely . . . would not deceive a child,
may deceive half the world if diluted in a quarto
volume"
Richard Whately, "Elements of Logic", p. 151