[Seekers] Punishment

Michael W. Fisher mwfisher@cts.com
Sun, 01 Mar 1998 14:42:25 -0800 (00888813745, 34F9E451.CADF0D6B@cts.com)



Steven Carr wrote:


> In message <34F9B575.30C62043@ksinc.net>, Ward Fenley
> <kingdom@ksinc.net> writes
>
> >Ok, without the Bible, prove to me that anyone's definition of "right"
> >and "wrong" is absolute.
> >
> >Linda, if I walk over and kill Chuck in cold blood, try to prove to me
> >without the Bible that it's wrong. You can't, cause without the Bible
> >you have no absolutes.
>
> The Bible does indeed tell us what murder is, and what manslaughter is.
> The reference is Numbers 35:16-32
>
Is a killing in self defense murder? Is a killing in defense of another murder? When the patriarhes of the OT wrote "man" that is generally precisely what it meant -- men. The prohibitions agains murder are agains men stricking other men and killing them with blows. Is it or is it not muder then to kill a woman? A child? Can a woman commit murder? Is it murder to drown or strangle or poison someone? Where does the Bible say so, one way or the other? How would any of those be reconciled with Num 35:24? Ciao. -- Michael Fisher, ET1/SS USN ret., law student >>NEW->http://www.infidels.org/library/humor/lioaca.html http://www.infidels.org/news/atheism/logic.html http://home.aol.com/Mfish6994 * * * ". . . a very LONG discussion is one of the most effective veils of Fallacy: . . . A Fallacy which when stated barely . . . would not deceive a child, may deceive half the world if diluted in a quarto volume" Richard Whately, "Elements of Logic", p. 151