Direct Challenge to CCBE (2)

• Messages sorted by: [ date ][ thread ][ subject ][ author ]

Although I John says only "no one has ever seen God" without any
conditions that it means "God the Father" or in his full "glory" I
will present proof here that it was God the Father who appeared in the
OT and not Jesus ot the Holy Spirit.

1. Exodus 6:3 
And I appeared unto Abraham, unto Isaac, and unto Jacob, by [the name
of] God ALMIGHTY,but by my name JEHOVAH was I not known to them. 

Note the use of "Almighty" here by God himself. Here is the Hebrew for
"Almighty" from Strong's:

7706 Shadday {shad-dah'-ee}  
   AV - Almighty 48; 48

  1) almighty, MOST POWERFUL
  1a) Shaddai, the Almighty (of God)

In other words, the appearance of God was in his most powerful form.
Who is greater, God or Jesus. Jesus alledgedy said:


John 14:28
"You heard me say, `I am going away and I am coming back to you.' If
you loved me, you would be glad that I am going to the Father, for THE
FATHER IS GREATER than I.

So, this rules out Jesus as the manifestation of God who appeared to
Abraham.

2. Now, from the New Testament:

Acts 7

Act 7:1 Then said the high priest, Are these things so? 

Act 7:2 
And he said, Men, brethren, and fathers, hearken; The GOD OF GLORY
APPEARED UNTO OUR FATHER ABRAHAM, when he was in Mesopotamia, before
he dwelt in Charran,

Acts 7:56 
And said, Behold, I see the heavens opened, and the SON OF MAN,
standing on the right hand of GOD. 

So, we clearly have Stephen, referring to God the Father (God of
glory) as having  appeared to Abraham in the OT. He also clearly
refers to Jesus in as a separate being in verse 56, calling him the
"son of man". So Stephen clearly understood that it was God the Father
who appeared to Abraham, not Jesus.


3.Jesus alledgedly said:

Matthew 15:4
"For GOD SAID, `Honor your father and mother'  and `Anyone who curses
his father or mother  must be put to death."'

Now, if it was Jesus who was appearing and speaking in the OT instead
of God the Father, then Jesus would have said "I said , Honor..." but
he clearly states that God said it.

I have shown 3 compelling reasons why the ad hoc harmonization that it
was Jesus who appeared in the OT is simply false. Although I have no
requirement to prove such, it is clear that God the Father appeared in
the OT, John said in I John "No one has ever seen God" and thus we are
still left with a contradiction. To overcome this contradiction, the
CCBE will have to:

(1) Somehow prove that seeing someone's backside is not "seeing" them.

(2) Demonstrate that I John requires not seeing full glory or not
seeing the "Father" when neither
condition is mentioned.

Once you have proved (1) and (2) then

(3) Prove that it was Jesus who appeared in the OT, and not God the
Father. You could start by finding the word "Jesus" in the OT.

Perhaps in supplying these proofs, you could spare us the ad hominem
nonsense this time. 






_________________________________________________________
DO YOU YAHOO!?
Get your free @yahoo.com address at http://mail.yahoo.com

• Previous message: Direct Challenge to CCBE (1)-
• Next message: Untimely Messages(for Tim)
• Messages sorted by: [ date ][ thread ][ subject ][ author ]