A moral God?

Farrell Till errancy@infidels.org
Mon, 31 May 1999 16:24:23 -0700 (00928211063, 2.2.32.19990531232423.008ead88@midwest.net)


At 04:38 PM 5/31/99 +0100, you wrote:


>> MUSSELWHITE
>> According to your definition of murder, God murdered the Amalakite babies
>in
>> 1 Sam.15:1-8.
>>
>> 1) Was it unlawful? YES, Deut.24:16
>> 2) Was it premeditated? YES or God is not omniscient.
>> 3) Did one human do it to another human? YES Saul and his armies. God
>ordered
>> it!
>>
>> By your own definition you have established that God murdered the
>Amalakite
>> babies. What dictionary did you get your definition of murder?
>
>Matthew Bell
>Your point 1. is only valid if you establish that the babies were put to
>death for the sins of their fathers and not for their own sinful condition
>in Adam. You further need to establish that the acts were not those of
>lawful killing in an ongoing war (see Exodus 17:7-16) or the carrying out
>of a command of God in retaliation for the acts of Amalek against Israel
>(see Dueteronomy 25:17-17).
>
TILL The order to kill the Amalekites, including even the babies, was given because of Amalekite actions against Israel. The language of 1 Samuel 15:1-2 makes that very clear: "Thus saith Yahweh of hosts, I remember that which Amalek did to Israel, how he laid wait for him in the way, when he came up from Egypt. Now go and smite Amalek, and utterly destroy all that they have, and spare them not; but slay both man and woman, infant and suckling, ox and sheep, camel and ass." The text clearly says that the Amalekites were to be utterly destroyed because of what "Amalek did to Israel, how he laid wait for him [Israel] in the way when he came up from Egypt," but this commandment was given over 400 years AFTER the Amalekites had attacked Israel. So tell us, Matt, do you think it is morally right to punish people for something that their ancestors had done four centuries earlier? If so, please tell us what rationale you used to reach this decision besides the fact that this story is recorded in the Bible, and so you feel compelled to defend it. Would you also explain to us how that this action can be harmonized with Deuteronomy 24:16, which says, "The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers: every man shall be put to death for his own sin"? Farrell Till Skepticism, Inc. jftill@midwest.net